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In Reply to: Re: Diatribe against audio tweaks in Skeptic Magazine posted by unclestu52 on March 13, 2005 at 16:11:56:
In defense of what John Curl states, another audio designer I know has told me that the best human noses can detect one part per trillion as determined by spectrometer. If we assume that the human senses are roughly equivalent, what does that translate into when we speak about music?Since it's just an assumption, and we can assume anything we want, I don't see that it translates into much of anything of any meaning.
He told me that there were no test gear available that can analyze sound with that degree of precision.So? Even if that were true, it's based on the previous assumption.
In analyzing another 'audiophile' anomaly, another cable manufacturer said he had to purchase a $100K Rhode and Schwartz real time analyzer in order to be able to measure what was clearly audible.Seems we have yet another assumption.
How do they know it was "clearly audible"? Simply because they perceived some difference? That in itself doesn't necessarily establish actual audibility due to known weaknesses of human aural perception. So how did they establish actual audibility? Or did they just take a leap of faith and/or ego and make assumptions?
All human senses can be trained to a sensitivity which can, in many cases, outperform the best available test gear.Yeah? How 'bout an example or two with regard to hearing.
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Follow Ups
- Re: Diatribe against audio tweaks in Skeptic Magazine - Steve Eddy 22:55:37 03/13/05 (2)
- Re: Diatribe against audio tweaks in Skeptic Magazine - Sampsa 12:33:34 03/14/05 (1)
- Re: Diatribe against audio tweaks in Skeptic Magazine - Steve Eddy 13:48:41 03/14/05 (0)