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In Reply to: Re: Huh! And that, in a moderated, peer-reviewed journal of (otherwise?) high integrity. But you must be right... nt posted by Bob Lee (QSC) on May 25, 2006 at 09:08:31:
Stan Lipshitz on Absolute Polarity:"Indeed, in a double-blind demonstration, the accuracy score was 100% on the summed 200Hz and 400Hz tones over loudspeakers, and over-all, including musical excerpts, the results on the audibility of the polarity inversion of both loudspeakers represented a confidence of more than 99% in the thesis that acoustic polarity reversal is audible." -- JAES, 9/82
"An effort should be made to standardize the polarities of the whole recording chain.... It also serves as a warning to those who conduct A/B comparisons on audio components without taking into account the possible relative polarity reversals which such components can introduce." -- Wireless World, 5/77
"Differences in components can frequently be greatly reduced, or even eliminated, by assuring that acoustic polarity is maintained when switching from Amplifier A to Amplifier B." -- HFN/RR, 1/78
"I believe that failure to maintain polarity is one of the most serious shortcomings of many A/B tests and one of the main causes of audible differences between components compared in this way." -- The Audio Amateur, 3/78
"Polarity must be taken into account when comparing two components." -- TAA, 4/79
Follow Ups:
Is that first one in the paper titled "On the Audibility of Midrange Phase Distortion in Audio Systems"?I don't know if I'll be able to find the original articles of the other four quotes, but they could be inferred as admonishments against unnecessary, arbitrary, and careless polarity reversals, which is understandable because it could affect the relative polarity among signals, not necessarily that the overall absolute polarity is audible.
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The reason I ask is because I have a copy of that paper, and it doesn't conclude that absolute polarity is audible; in fact, Lipshitz, Pocock, and Vanderkooy wrote this in it:"This experiment does not demonstrate that polarity reversal of both channels (or monaural polarity reversal if the signal is applied to one ear only) is audible."
Okay, but I'm not going to buy your book just to investigate your assertions.Again, I ask: Is your first quote from the paper titled "On the Audibility of Midrange Phase Distortion in Audio Systems"? Please answer. Thanks.
Thank you. I will try to look those up and gether the context as well.
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